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समानॱकर्तृकयोः पूर्वॱकाले ONPANINI 34021

When two verbs have the same doer, the one that means the previous action gets its tense replaced with /ktvA.

Counterexample. If we say the two sentences —

devadattaz carati carvaNakaJ ca carvati देवदत्तश्चरति चर्वणकं च चर्वति "Devadatta is walking and chewing gum"

people used to Sanskrit will naturally assume that no action happens first — the walking and the chewing happen at the same time. And this sUtra does not work.

However, if we mean that the same doer first takes a walk, and afterwards starts chewing, we must say —

caritvA carvaNakaJ ca carvati चरित्वा चर्वणकं च चर्वति "First walks and afterwards chews gum."

Here the word carvati चर्वति "chews" is carv चर्व् + /laT, and the word **caritvA चरित्वा "after walking" is car चर् + /ktvA.

See abs inria.

Can /ktvA be used after all roots?

Yes, but when the root has an /upasarga, /ktvA must be replaced with /lyap

/san + /ni + /asyati + /ktvA
/san + /ni + as अस् + /lyap
!**sannyasya सन्न्यस्य "after renouncing"

Why do we say "same doer"?

You cannot say "the fruit fell and he ate it" using /ktvA after the "fell". Even though the verbs **apatat अपतत् and **Adat आदत् both have /tip ending, the doer of patati पतति is the fruit, and the doer of Adat आदत् is the eater, so these two verbs do not have the same doer (are not samAna-kartRka- समानॱकर्तृकॱ).

To say that you may use two separate sentences —

vRkSAd apatat phalam | tad Adat | वृक्षादपतत्फलम्। तदादत्। "The fruit fell from the tree. He ate the fruit."

or maybe some other tricks —

vRkSAt pannam phalam Adat वृक्षात्पन्नं फलमादत् "He ate the fruit that had fallen from the tree."

apatat tatas tad Adat अपतत्ततस्तदादत् "it fell and then he ate it"

When you said that both verbs need to have the same doer, were maybe you trying to say that when translated into English the verbs need to have the same subject?

No. Rather, I was trying to say what I actually said. See ktvA sentence with different subjects same doer.

What sort of word is caritvA चरित्वा? noun or verb?

It is a noun, because As /ktvA is a /kRt affix. Yet, it is an /avyaya noun, so it loses any /sup that other rules might have put on it.

Even though /ktvA enders are nouns, they retains the root power of having roles hanging from them —

vane caritvA grAmam Agamya carvaNakaJ carvati
वने चरित्वा ग्राममागम्य चर्वणकं चर्वति

"walks in the forest, then comes to the village, then chews gum."

car चर् is a /seT root —

car चर् + /ktvAcar चर् + (/iT + /ktvA) → !**caritvA चरित्वा "after walking"

kR कृ is an /aniT root —

kR कृ + /ktvA!**kRtvA कृत्वा "after doing"

Is the sentence that means the first action always said first?

No grammar rule teaches any order for the words. Yet, people will get confused unless you tell first what happened first. This is not a rule of Sanskrit, it is common sense, a common custom in storytelling, and applies to most languages —

bhuktvA pItvA vrajati भुक्त्वा पीत्वा व्रजति "eats, drinks and leaves."

including Latin —

Agamya dRSTvA jigaya आगम्य दृष्ट्वा जिगय "I came, I saw, I conquered."

When there are only two actions, however, reversing is fine, because the /ktvA shows clearly what happened first —

carati carvaNAkaJ carvitvA चरति चर्वणाकं चर्वित्वा "he first chews gum and then walks"

carvaNAkaJ carvitvA carati चर्वणाकं चर्वित्वा चरति "he first chews gum and then walks"

caritvA carvaNAkaJ carvati चरित्वा चर्वणाकं चर्वति "he first walks and then chews gum"

carvaNAkaJ carvati caritvA चर्वणाकं चर्वति चरित्वा "he first walks and then chews gum"

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