deriv SD cv (405) ashtadhyayi.com hei.de L 405 ETT STT a 3.4.69 ALPH OLDHOMEPAGE NEWHOMEPAGE
tenses show the doer or show the object,
but after objectless roots they show the doer or show nothing.
A tense is said to "show something" when we choose the /tiG that replaces it according to the number and person of the something.
Ordinarily, tenses are replaced with one or other /tiG according to the number and person of the doer. That is why the verbs in these sentences have had /laT replaced with /tip /tas /jhi respectively —
**pacati पचति **rAjA राजा "king is cooking"
**pacatas पचतस् **rAjAnau राजानौ "two kings are cooking"
**pacanti पचन्ति **rAjAnas राजानस् "many kings are cooking"
The /laT in those verbs is said to be doershowing.
However, whenever we want, we may replace the /laT with /ta /AtAm /jha /iT' according to the object —
**pacyate पच्यते **rAjJA राज्ञा "king is cooking it"
**pacyete पच्येते **rAjJA राज्ञा "king is cooking both"
**pacyante पच्यन्ते **rAjJA राज्ञा "king is cooking them"
**pacye पच्ये **rAjJA राज्ञा "king is cooking me"
In that case the /laT and its replacements are saidto be objectshowing.
Why do the last four examples get bent replacements?
Because bhAvakarmaNoH says so.
Why is there no /zap in them?
Because rule kartarizap only applies before the doershowing affixes.
Why do they have /yak?
Because sArvadhAtuk... sez so.
What happens when the verbdoes not have an object?
See objectless verbs.
kartari kRt << | 34069 laH karmaNi ca bhAve... | > tayor eva kRtya;kta;... |
avyayAd Ap;supaH <<< | L 405 | >>> vartamAne laT |